Wednesday, June 17, 2009
Does a bear shit in the woods?
An interesting question popped into my head today while I was vacuuming. Rather than try to explain my random train of thought, I will just go ahead and state the question:
If someone has sex with a prostitute without paying, is it rape? Is it stealing?
After consulting a friend on the matter, we both agreed that it would be considered stealing since you have received a service that you have not paid for. Then, after further thought, my friend added that if the prostitute is your wife, then it would be rape. Thoughts?
If someone has sex with a prostitute without paying, is it rape? Is it stealing?
After consulting a friend on the matter, we both agreed that it would be considered stealing since you have received a service that you have not paid for. Then, after further thought, my friend added that if the prostitute is your wife, then it would be rape. Thoughts?
# posted by The Runt @ 5:11 PM 
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Wow.
I think it would be considered stealing mainly because - in all incidences - the sex is presumably consensual.
I think it would be considered stealing mainly because - in all incidences - the sex is presumably consensual.
Well, in the first case the sex is only consentual because she is getting paid. She most likely doesn't give out "freebies." So, if her pimp asks her, "Where's my money, bitch?" would she say, "That mofo stole from me!" or "I was raped!"??
But in the second case you have to assume that the man doesn't have to pay his wife for sex. So, in a way I suppose he is benefitting from his wife's business because he is getting "free merchandise."
Either way, I am interested in how a court would rule the two cases.
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But in the second case you have to assume that the man doesn't have to pay his wife for sex. So, in a way I suppose he is benefitting from his wife's business because he is getting "free merchandise."
Either way, I am interested in how a court would rule the two cases.
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