Friday, June 19, 2009

 

Assuming a bear shits in the woods...

While responding to PIB's comment on the previous post, another case came to mind:

Say, for example, there is a prostitute living in a land where prostitutes are legal. Not only does everyone in this land know that this woman is a prostitute, they ALSO know exactly what she charges for her services.

Case 1:
A man then intentionally rapes her. After raping her, he throws down the exact amount of money she would have charged had it been a consensual act.

OR

Case 2:
Same scenario, only this time the man isn't aware that he has raped the town whore until after he has raped her. BUT once he realizes who he has actually raped, he quickly throws down the exact amount of money she would normally charge for her services before running away.

It can't be stealing since the man has paid in either case, right? So, is it rape? Would it still be rape if she was on-duty at the time...or would that even matter? And is one case more morally wrong than the other?

Wednesday, June 17, 2009

 

Does a bear shit in the woods?

An interesting question popped into my head today while I was vacuuming. Rather than try to explain my random train of thought, I will just go ahead and state the question:

If someone has sex with a prostitute without paying, is it rape? Is it stealing?

After consulting a friend on the matter, we both agreed that it would be considered stealing since you have received a service that you have not paid for. Then, after further thought, my friend added that if the prostitute is your wife, then it would be rape. Thoughts?

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